CCNA CISCO ANSWERS

ERouting v4.0 Final Pattern 2

2009-04-01T08:34:00.000-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 90.2%

1. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
packet switching
path selection

2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
ans:
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0

4. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
ans:
172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
ans:
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
ans:
split horizon

8. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
ans:
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

11. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
ans:
The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

12. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
ans:
limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

13. Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
ans:
B, D

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
ans:
The packet will be dropped.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
ans:
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

16. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
ans:
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
ans:
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
ans:
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
ans:
Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

20. What are two switching functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router encapsulates the packet in the appropriate data link frame type for the outgoing data link.
The router determines the exit interface after data encapsulation.

21. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

22. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
ans:
The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.

23. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
ans:
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

24. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
ans:
Only the enable password is encrypted.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
ans:
Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

26. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.

27. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
ans:
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies

28. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

29. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
ans:
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

30. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
ans:
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.

31. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are child routes? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0
10.1.2.0

32. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
ans:
route to 10.1.0.0/23

33. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
ans:
It is the metric, which is cost.

34. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
ans:
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.

35. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
ans:
S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

36. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
ans:
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.

37. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

38. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

39. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
ans:
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

40. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
ans:
Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.

41. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
ans:
OSPF interval timers mismatch
interface network type mismatch

42. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/13

43. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
ans:
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ans:
It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC

45. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
ans:
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

46. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
ans:
Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
ans";
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

48. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

49.
Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
ans:
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.

50. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

51.
What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
ans:
tests Layer 2 connectivity
enabled by default on each interface
provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

52. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
ans:
The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

53. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
ans:
network address
wildcard mask
area ID

54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
ans:
198.18.48.0/21

55. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
ans:
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

56. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
ans:
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.

58. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
ans:
DCE
CSU/DSU
modem

59. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
ans:
2

ERouting v4.0 Final Pattern 1

2009-04-01T08:04:00.000-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 94.8%

1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
ans:
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
ans:
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.

Which path will be used to transmit the data packets from PC1 to PC2?
ans:
The packets will travel via R2-R1.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
ans:
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.

7. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
ans:
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

8. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
ans:
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
ans:
Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?
ans:
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.

Which ping will fail?
ans:
from R1 to 192.168.3.1

14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
ans:
The default route is configured incorrectly.

15. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
ans:
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

16. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
ans:
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

19. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

20. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
ans:
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.

21. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
ans:
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
ans:
192.168.1.64/26

23. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Configure the routers in the same area.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

24. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?
ans:
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

26. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
ans:
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

27. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.

28. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

29. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ans:
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

30. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
ans:
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

32. What two routing protocols will produce a shortest path first tree? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
ans:
It will forward the packet to R1.

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
ans:
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.

36. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface

37. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
ans:
Cisco789

38. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
ans:
EIGRP

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
ans:
192.168.0.0/22

40. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
ans:
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

41. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
ans:
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

42. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

43. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

44. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
ans:
split horizon

45. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
ans:
5

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
ans:
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

47. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
the path learned via EIGRP

48. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
ans:
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.

49. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
ans:
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
ans:
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

51. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
ans:
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

52. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
ans:
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.

53. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
ans:
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.

54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
ans:
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

55. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

56. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. What are two static routes that can be configured on R1, either of which would enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2

57. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
ans:
Router4

58. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
ans:
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.

59. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
ans:
a DTE device
a V.35 cable

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 10

2009-03-25T08:07:00.000-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 97.4%

1. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
ans:
Dijkstra

2. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
ans:
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
ans:
SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
ans:
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
ans:
cost of the link

6. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
ans:
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

7. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
all routers in the area have link state databases
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
ans:
updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
ans:
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
Each router independently determines the route to each network.
After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
ans:
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

12. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
ans:
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
ans:
link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
ans:
when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
ans:
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
ans:
OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
ans:
floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
ans:
B and C

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 9

2009-03-25T07:59:00.000-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
ans:
topology table

2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
ans:
they have different autonomous-system numbers

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32 network on router A?
ans:
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

4. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
ans:
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor

5. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
ans:
the route is in a stable state

6. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
ans:
routing
topology

7. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose two.)
ans:
the feasible distance of the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

8. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
ans:
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

9. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

10. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

12. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
ans:
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

13. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
ans:
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
A,B,E

15. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
ans:
delay
bandwidth

16. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
ans:
autonomous system

17. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
ans:
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

18. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
ans:
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

19. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
ans:
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

20. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
ans:
170

21. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
ans:
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 8

2009-03-24T09:09:00.000-07:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ans:
ip classless

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
ans:
7

3. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:

R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1

What type of route is this?
ans:
a level 1 ultimate network route

4. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
ans:
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

5. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
ans:
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

6. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
ans:
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
ans:
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
ans:
use the default route

9. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
ans:
RIPv2

10. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
ans:
255.255.255.0

11. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance

12. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
ans:
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
ans:
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

14. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
ans:
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

15. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
ans:
There is at least one parent and one child route

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
ans:
All of the routes listed are network routes.

18. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
ans:
The command ip classless is enabled on the router.

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 7

2009-03-05T05:49:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
ans:
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
ans:
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

3. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
ans:
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
ans:
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
Why does the router respond with an error?
ans:
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

6. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
ans:
15 hops

7. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
ans:
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
ans:
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
ans:
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

10. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
ans:
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

11. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
ans:
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

12. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
ans:
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

13. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
ans:
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
ans:
Router2(config-router)# version 2

15. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
ans:
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

18. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
ans:
subnet mask

19. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 6

2009-03-05T05:24:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
ans:
255.255.255.252

2. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
192.1.1.224/28

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:
192.168.0.0/21

4. What is a supernet?
ans:
a summarization of serveral IP classful networks into one IP address range

5. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
ans:
84

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
ans:
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
ans:
CIDR

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
ans:
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

9. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
ans:
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
ans:
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

11. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
32-bit address
subnet mask

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
/27

13. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
ans:
29

14. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
ans:
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

15. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
ans:
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

16. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
ans:
192.168.2.130/25

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
ans:
192.168.4.15/29

18. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied by router B when it receives a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0?
ans:
24

19. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
ans:
the shortage of IP addresses

20. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
ans:
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 5

2009-02-25T09:41:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 94.9%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
ans:
155 seconds

2. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
ans:
10.0.0.0/8

3. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
ans:
only the gateway router

5. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
ans:
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers B and D also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
ans:
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

7. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
ans:
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

8. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
ans:
3

9. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
ans:
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

10. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
ans:
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
ans:
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

13. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
ans:
debug ip rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
ans:
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
ans:
30

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?
ans:
There are two equal cost paths to network 172.16.100.128.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?
ans:
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
ans:
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

19. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
ans:
RouterB(config)# no router rip

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 4

2009-02-25T09:09:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
ans:
16

3. What is a routing loop?
ans:
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
ans:
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
ans:
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

6. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
ans:
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

7. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
ans:
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

8. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
ans:
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
ans:
3

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
ans:
route poisoning

11. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
ans:
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

12. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

13. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
ans:
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

14. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
ans:
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

15. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
ans:
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

16. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

17. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

18. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
ans:
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

19. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
ans:
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

20. Which event will cause a triggered update?
ans:
a route is installed in the routing table

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 1

2009-02-18T10:36:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
ans:
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

2. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
ans:
1
4

3. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
ans:
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

4. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
ans:
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

5. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
ans:
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

6. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
ans:
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

7. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
ans:
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
ans:
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

10. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
ans:
TFTP server
Flash memory

11. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

13. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
ans:
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

14. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ans:
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
ans:
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

16. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
ans:
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

17. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
ans:
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

18. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
ans:
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

19. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
ans:
the Layer 2 source and destination address

20. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
ans:
cross-over

21. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 2

2009-02-18T06:14:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate

2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
ans:
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

4. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
ans:
No clock rate has been set

5. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
ans:
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

6. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table.

7. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table

8. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
ans:
192.1.1.0/25

9.Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
ans:
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route

10. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
ans:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
ans: a modem
a CSU/DSU device

13.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
ans:
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
ans:
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

16. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route

18. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
ans:
platform
holdtime
local interface

19. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
ans:
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

22. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?
ans:
172.16.0.0/21

23. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
ans:
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

Erouting v4.0 Chapter 3

2009-02-07T09:38:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

3) Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
ans:
show ip route

4) Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
ans:
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

5) An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
ans:
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

6) Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
ans:
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

7) Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
ans:
3

8) What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
ans:
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

9) Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
ans:
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

10)Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
ans:
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

11) Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
ans:
shortest-path first calculations

12) The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
ans:
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

13) Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
ans:
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

14) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
ans:
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

15) Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

16) Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

17) What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
ans:
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

18) Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
ans:
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

19) A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
ans:
OSPF can be used between the routers.

20) A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
ans:
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

21) The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
ans:
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

22) When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?
ans:
lowest administrative distance

ENetwork v4.0 Final

2008-12-20T09:06:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 82%

1) Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
ans:
10.10.1.3:25

2) Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
ans:
router B, router E, router F, host Y

3) Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
ans:
transport layer

4) A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ans:
NVRAM

6) Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
ans:
The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.

7) Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
ans:
49152 to 65535

8) Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
ans:
192.168.1.1

9) What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
ans:
destination host logical address

10) Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.1
172.16.0.1
192.168.0.1

11) What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.

12) To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login

What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
ans:
Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.

13) Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
ans:
NVRAM

14) Which OSI layer manages data segments?
ans:
transport layer

15) Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
ans:
router

16) Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
ans:
rollover cable

17) Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
ans:
This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
The network can have 14 hosts.
The assigned address is a private address.

18) Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)
ans:
segment 1
segment 4
segment 5

19) Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
ans:
Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

20) Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
ans:
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

21) Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
ans:
It will drop the packet.

22) Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What does abc.xyz.local in the output represent? (Choose two.)
ans:
the primary domain name server for the host
the IP address of the website resolver1.abc.local

23)
How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
ans:
It uses multiple ports.

24) Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)
ans:
The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.

25) A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
ans:
enable

26) Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
ans:
192.168.9.64/28
192.168.9.96/28
192.168.9.64/26

27) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
ans:
The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.

28) Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
ans:
1000 BASE-TX
1000 BASE-SX

29) Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
ans:
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

30) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
ans:
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

31) Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly. The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown. However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
ans:
Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.

32) Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Four collision domains are present.
Two broadcast domains are present.

33) Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
ans:
router

34) Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
ans:
255.255.248.0

35) While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
ans:
Router(config)#

36) An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
ans:
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0

37) Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
ans:
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

38) Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.11.88
172.16.11.70
172.16.11.67

39) What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
ans:
Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.

40) Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5, and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24. What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
ans:
0060.7320.B826

41) Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
ans:
It supports data communications between networks.
It prevents broadcasts.
It uniquely identifies each host.

42) Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
ans:
10.1.192.1

43) Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?
ans:
5

44) Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
ans:
It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.

45) Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
ans:
The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.

46) Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The gateway addresses are network addresses.

47) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
ans:
The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48) Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
ans:
ring

49) Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:192.168.0.0/21

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 9

2008-12-19T09:34:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
ans:
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical layer
Data-link layer

3) Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
ans:
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4) What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
ans:
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting

5) When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
ans:
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---

6) What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

7) What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
ans:
Logical Link Control sublayer

8) Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
ans:
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
ans:
network layer packet

10) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11) Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
ans:
Collisions can decrease network performance.

12) Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
ans:
network access

13) What is the primary purpose of ARP?
ans:
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14) Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
ans:
No collisions will occur on this link.

15) Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
ans:
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16) Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
copied into RAM during system startup
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long

17) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
minimizing of collisions
increase in the throughput of communications

18) What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
ans:
copper UTP
optical fiber

19) Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
ans:
BA

20) After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
ans:
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first

21) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 10

2008-12-14T10:28:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2) Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
ans:
console interface

3) What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
ans:
greater distances per cable run
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
greater bandwidth potential

4) A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
ans:
UTP

5) What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
ans:
loss of signal strength as distance increases

6) How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
ans:
2046

7) Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.0

8) A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
ans:
255.255.255.224

9) What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
ans:
rollover

10) Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
ans:
router

11) Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
ans:
192.168.3.54

12) Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
ans:
host B would be successful, host A would fail

13) Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
ans:
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
smart serial

14) Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
ans:
3

15) What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
ans:
direct configuration of the device
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16) Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
ans:
hub

18) Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
ans:
1

19) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
ans:
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Five networks are shown.

20) To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
ans:
rollover cable

21) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22) Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.224

23) Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
ans:
switch

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 8

2008-12-14T10:04:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 94.3%

1) What are the five elements that make up the fiber-optic cable?
ans:
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket

2) In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
ans:
1 and 2
3 and 6

3) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

4) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

5) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

6) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

8) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

9) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

10) What encoding scheme does 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet use?
ans:
4B/5B

11) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

12) In which of the following situations would a crossover cable be used? (Choose two.)
ans:
router to PC
switch to hub

13) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

14) What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
ans:
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

16) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

17) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

18) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

19) What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
ans:
goodput
throughput
bandwidth

20) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

21) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

22) Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
ans:

23) With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
ans:
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

24) What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
ans:
the twisting of the wires in the cable

25) XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
ans:
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP

26) In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
ans:
fiber

27) What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
ans:
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media

28) Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
ans:
backbone cable

29) What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
ans:
more host mobility

30) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 7

2008-12-14T09:27:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?
ans:
802.11

2) What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
ans:
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

3) Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
ans:
nondeterministic
collision environment
first-come, first-served approach

4) Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three)
ans:
non-deterministic
less overhead
collisions exist

5) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

6) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

7) Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link layer?
ans:
MAC, LLC

8) Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)
ans:
non-deterministic
uses first-come, first-served approach

9)Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
ans:
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

10) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

11) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They are considered physical addresses.

12) A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawin
ans:
physical topology

13) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

14) Which three session options does PPP offer? (Choose three.)
ans:
multilink
compression
authentication

15) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

16) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
ans:
source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP - PC

18) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

19) What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
ans:
support frame error detection

20) What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
ans:
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

21) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

22) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

23) What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
ans:
The media access control protocol can be very simple.

24) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
ans:
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

25) What is a function of the data link layer?
ans:
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

26) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

27) What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
ans:
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

28) Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
ans:
MAC

29) What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

30) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

31) 19.Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
ans:
4

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 6

2008-11-27T18:19:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
ans:
32

2) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
ans:
255.255.255.192

3) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
ans:
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

4) Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
ans:
/27

5) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
ans:
NAT is required for the host A network.

6) What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
ans:
255.255.255.0

7) Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
ans:
This is a network address.

8) What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
ans:
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
varies in length
is used to forward packets

9) What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
ans:
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

10) A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
ans:
172.16.192.160

11) Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
ans:
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

12) What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router will discard the packet.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

13) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192

14) Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
ans:
larger address space
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption

15) Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
ans:
binary ANDing

16) What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
ans:
expanded addressing capabilities

17) Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90

18) Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19) Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.207 /27

20) What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
ans:
a network

21) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
ans:
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22) Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
servers
network printers
routers

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 5

2008-11-26T09:30:00.001-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
ans:
destination network address

2) What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
ans:
source and destination IP address

3) In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
ans:
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

4)
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
ans:
time-to-live

5) Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
ans:
network portion

6) Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
ans:
192.133.219.1

7) If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
ans:
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

8) What is the purpose of a default gateway?
ans:
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9) What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
ans:
static

10) When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
ans:
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11) What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
ans:
purpose
geographic location
ownership

12) What is a component of a routing table entry?
ans:
the next-hop address

13) Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
router
firewall

14) What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
ans:
Performance degradation
security issues
host identification

15) Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
ans:
4

16) Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
ans:
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
ans:
10.10.10.6

18) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Replace S2 with a router.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.

19) Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20) What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
consume bandwidth to exchange route information

21) What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
ans:
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 4

2008-11-26T09:21:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 92.7%

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
ans:
This contains a Telnet request.
This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
ans:
0 to 1023

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
ans:
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
ans:
transport

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
ans:
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
ans:
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
ans:
session establishment

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
ans:
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
ans:
source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
ans:
low overhead
connectionless

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
ans:
window size

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
ans:
UDP

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
ans:
source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
ans:
flow control
session establishment
numbering and sequencing

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
ans:
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
ans:
minimal delays in data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
ans:
80

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
ans:
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 2

2008-11-26T09:16:00.000-08:00

Expect minimum percentage: 83%

1)Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical
Data Link

2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection

3)During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
ans:
physical address is added.

4)What device is considered an intermediary device?
ans:
switch

5)Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
ans:
network

6)Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
determine pathways for data
retime and retransmit data signals
manage data flows

7)What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
ans:
the path to use to reach the destination host

8)What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
ans:
presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

9)Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network A -- LAN

10)What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages

11)Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
ans:
multiplexing

12)What is a PDU?
ans:
a layer specific encapsulation

13)Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
ans:
an end device

14)Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
ans:
E, F, H, I, J

15)Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
ans:
intermediary

16)Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
ans:
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

17)Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
ans:
LAN

18)What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
ans:
division of segments into packets

19)Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
ans:
originate data flow

20)What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
ans:
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

21)Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
ans:
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
require layer dependent encapsulations

Welcome

2008-11-26T09:15:00.000-08:00

Hello my friends. This blog contains all the answers for the CCNA network fundementals v 4.0. As you think there are many blogs related to this but the specialty of my blog is that you can find the expected marks before you submit the answers. Yes the expected mark will be displayed as part of the answers.

If you can find the wrong answers please specify it as comment so that our friends can correct it.

Best wishes,
Santhosh Kumar