ENetwork v4.0 Final

Expect minimum percentage: 82%

1) Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
ans:
10.10.1.3:25

2) Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
ans:
router B, router E, router F, host Y

3) Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
ans:
transport layer

4) A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ans:
NVRAM

6) Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
ans:
The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.

7) Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
ans:
49152 to 65535

8) Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
ans:
192.168.1.1

9) What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
ans:
destination host logical address

10) Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.1
172.16.0.1
192.168.0.1

11) What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.

12) To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login

What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
ans:
Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.

13) Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
ans:
NVRAM

14) Which OSI layer manages data segments?
ans:
transport layer

15) Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
ans:
router

16) Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
ans:
rollover cable

17) Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
ans:
This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
The network can have 14 hosts.
The assigned address is a private address.

18) Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)
ans:
segment 1
segment 4
segment 5

19) Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
ans:
Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

20) Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
ans:
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

21) Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
ans:
It will drop the packet.

22) Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What does abc.xyz.local in the output represent? (Choose two.)
ans:
the primary domain name server for the host
the IP address of the website resolver1.abc.local

23)
How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
ans:
It uses multiple ports.

24) Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)
ans:
The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.

25) A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
ans:
enable

26) Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
ans:
192.168.9.64/28
192.168.9.96/28
192.168.9.64/26

27) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
ans:
The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.

28) Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
ans:
1000 BASE-TX
1000 BASE-SX

29) Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
ans:
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

30) Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
ans:
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

31) Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly. The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown. However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
ans:
Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.

32) Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Four collision domains are present.
Two broadcast domains are present.

33) Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
ans:
router

34) Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
ans:
255.255.248.0

35) While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
ans:
Router(config)#

36) An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
ans:
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0

37) Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
ans:
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

38) Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)
ans:
172.16.11.88
172.16.11.70
172.16.11.67

39) What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
ans:
Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.

40) Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5, and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24. What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
ans:
0060.7320.B826

41) Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
ans:
It supports data communications between networks.
It prevents broadcasts.
It uniquely identifies each host.

42) Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
ans:
10.1.192.1

43) Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?
ans:
5

44) Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
ans:
It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.

45) Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
ans:
The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.

46) Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The gateway addresses are network addresses.

47) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
ans:
The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48) Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
ans:
ring

49) Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:192.168.0.0/21

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 9

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
ans:
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical layer
Data-link layer

3) Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
ans:
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4) What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
ans:
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting

5) When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
ans:
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---

6) What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
ans:
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

7) What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
ans:
Logical Link Control sublayer

8) Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
ans:
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
ans:
network layer packet

10) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11) Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
ans:
Collisions can decrease network performance.

12) Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
ans:
network access

13) What is the primary purpose of ARP?
ans:
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14) Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
ans:
No collisions will occur on this link.

15) Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
ans:
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16) Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
copied into RAM during system startup
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long

17) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
ans:
minimizing of collisions
increase in the throughput of communications

18) What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
ans:
copper UTP
optical fiber

19) Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
ans:
BA

20) After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
ans:
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first

21) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
ans:
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 10

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2) Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
ans:
console interface

3) What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
ans:
greater distances per cable run
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
greater bandwidth potential

4) A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
ans:
UTP

5) What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
ans:
loss of signal strength as distance increases

6) How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
ans:
2046

7) Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.0

8) A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
ans:
255.255.255.224

9) What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
ans:
rollover

10) Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
ans:
router

11) Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
ans:
192.168.3.54

12) Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
ans:
host B would be successful, host A would fail

13) Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
ans:
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
smart serial

14) Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
ans:
3

15) What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
ans:
direct configuration of the device
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16) Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
ans:
hub

18) Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
ans:
1

19) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
ans:
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Five networks are shown.

20) To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
ans:
rollover cable

21) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
ans:
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22) Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
ans:
255.255.255.224

23) Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
ans:
switch

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 8

Expect minimum percentage: 94.3%

1) What are the five elements that make up the fiber-optic cable?
ans:
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket

2) In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
ans:
1 and 2
3 and 6

3) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

4) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

5) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

6) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

8) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

9) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

10) What encoding scheme does 100 Mbps Fast Ethernet use?
ans:
4B/5B

11) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

12) In which of the following situations would a crossover cable be used? (Choose two.)
ans:
router to PC
switch to hub

13) Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
ans:
Physical

14) What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
ans:
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

15) Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

16) When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
ans:
when connecting a host to a switch

17) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
ans:
crossover cable

18) Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
ans:
wireless

19) What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
ans:
goodput
throughput
bandwidth

20) Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
ans:
generally uses lasers as the light source

21) An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
ans:
OTDR

22) Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
ans:







23) With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
ans:
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

24) What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
ans:
the twisting of the wires in the cable

25) XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
ans:
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP

26) In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
ans:
fiber

27) What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
ans:
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media

28) Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
ans:
backbone cable

29) What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
ans:
more host mobility

30) In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
ans:
RJ-45

ENetwork v4.0 Chapter 7

Expect minimum percentage: 97.7%

1) Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?
ans:
802.11

2) What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
ans:
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

3) Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
ans:
nondeterministic
collision environment
first-come, first-served approach

4) Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three)
ans:
non-deterministic
less overhead
collisions exist

5) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

6) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

7) Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link layer?
ans:
MAC, LLC

8) Which features describe the concept of Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection? (Choose two.)
ans:
non-deterministic
uses first-come, first-served approach

9)Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
ans:
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

10) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

11) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They are considered physical addresses.

12) A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawin
ans:
physical topology

13) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

14) Which three session options does PPP offer? (Choose three.)
ans:
multilink
compression
authentication

15) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

16) Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
ans:
source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP - PC

18) What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
ans:
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

19) What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
ans:
support frame error detection

20) What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
ans:
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

21) What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
ans:
media sharing
logical topology

22) Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
ans:
the geographic scope of the network
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

23) What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
ans:
The media access control protocol can be very simple.

24) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
ans:
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

25) What is a function of the data link layer?
ans:
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

26) What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
ans:
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

27) What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
ans:
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

28) Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
ans:
MAC

29) What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

30) What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
ans:
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

31) 19.Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
ans:
4